ISTQB Latest Sample Papers 2010-2011 – Paper 2 [Answers at the end]
CTFL (Foundation)
CTFL (Foundation)
Author
monu rohila
Date
2015-05-03 17:38
Views
11741044
Q. 1: Poor software characteristics are
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
Q. 2: System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q. 3: Contract and regulation testing is a part of
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
Q. 4: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Q. 5: Which is not the testing objectives
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Q. 6: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of
the following costs of quality?
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Q. 7: Which is not the project risks
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
Q. 8: Bug life cycle
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Q. 9: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
Q. 10: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Q. 11: Which is not a testing principle
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 12: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
Q. 13: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own
locations
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
Q. 14: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality
A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028
Q. 15: Which is not a black box testing technique
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
Q. 16: Find the mismatch
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
Q. 17: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which
phase:-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 18: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases
are:
A. Designed by persons who write the software under test
B. Designed by a person from a different section
C. Designed by a person from a different organization
D. Designed by another person
Q. 19: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 20: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 21: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:
A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to
do.
D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Q. 22: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:
Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print "Large"
End if
If p > 50 then
Print "pLarge"
End if
A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Q. 23: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life
cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Q. 24: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
D. All of above are true
Q. 25: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
Q. 26: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass
(61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40
Q. 27: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.
Q. 28: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of
salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any
further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
Q. 29: Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
Q. 30: Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
Q. 31: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover
the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO
Exhibit:
A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.
Q. 32: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analyzing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Q. 33: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 34: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?
A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.
Q. 35: Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Q.36: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?
A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.
Q. 37: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?
A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.
Q. 38: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?
A. The name and/or organizational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.
Q. 39: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Q. 40: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.
A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
Q. 41: Which of the following is correct?
A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been
fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much
regression testing to do.
Q. 42: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Q. 43: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?
Exhibit:
A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
Q. 44: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?
A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.
Answers:
Q. 1 B
Q. 2 C
Q. 3 B
Q. 4 C
Q. 5 D
Q. 6 A
Q. 7 D
Q. 8 A
Q. 9 B
Q. 10 C
Q. 11 D
Q. 12 A
Q. 13 B
Q. 14 A
Q. 15 D
Q. 16 D
Q. 17 A
Q. 18 C
Q. 19 A
Q. 20 C
Q. 21 D
Q. 22 C
Q. 23 D
Q. 24 C
Q. 25 C
Q. 26 D
Q. 27 A
Q. 28 A
Q. 29 C
Q. 30 C
Q. 31 A
Q. 32 C
Q. 33 A
Q. 34 B
Q. 35 B
Q. 36 B
Q. 37 A
Q. 38 C
Q. 39 A
Q. 40 B
Q. 41 D
Q. 42 A
Q. 43 C
Q. 44 B
for more articles visit http://softwaretestingpro.blogspot.com
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tcorteletti | 2018.09.09 | 0 | 10706008 |
1211 |
Syllabus CTFL - [BR] (1)
tcorteletti
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2018.09.09
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Votes 0
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Views 11492743
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tcorteletti | 2018.09.09 | 0 | 11492743 |
1210 |
ISTQB Certification – Foundation Level syllabus
Sky Driver
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2018.09.05
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Votes 0
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Views 11051796
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Sky Driver | 2018.09.05 | 0 | 11051796 |
1209 |
Documents to be submitted at the time of registration of ISTQB Advanced Level (2)
Sky Driver
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2018.09.05
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Votes 0
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Views 11099431
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Sky Driver | 2018.09.05 | 0 | 11099431 |
1208 |
The prerequisites for applying for the ISTQB Advanced Level (1)
Sky Driver
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2018.09.05
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Votes 0
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Views 11068205
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Sky Driver | 2018.09.05 | 0 | 11068205 |
It surely is a good sample, thanks.
good one
These sample questions can be found from the official ISTQB site.